THE SPIRITUAL BATTLE – 79 “We Are Not Saved By Works - Baptism Is A Work - Therefore We Are Not Saved By Baptism” (Parts 1 and 2)
“8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9 not of works, lest any man should boast” (Ephesians 2:8-9, KJV).
Loved ones, in our Spiritual Battle the title of this article is the reasoning of multitudes of sincere believers in Jesus, the Son of God. It is true the Bible says we are not saved by works. It is equally true the Bible says, "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified and not by faith only" (James 2:24). Which one of these passages is true? Are both true?
If one of the passages is true and the other false then there is a contradiction in the Bible which makes suspect the whole of it. If both passages are true, how is one to explain the apparent contradiction between the two cited passages? The only explanation that properly shows there is no contradiction between the two passages is that the writers in Ephesians 2:8-9 and James 2:24 were NOT using the word "works" with the same meaning. There is no other way to reconcile the two writers.
Granting that such an explanation would remove "contradiction" between the two writers, the next question is, "Is there evidence that such might be true of other words in the Scriptures?" There is! In fact it is necessary to understand that the same word may be used but with an entirely different meaning by two men, and not only that; we must understand that truth will never make an inspired writer "contradict" himself.
Case in point… John wrote, “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life” (John 3:16). He also wrote: “Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him” (1 John 2:15).
God loved the world and gave His Son to die to save it. Yet, if man loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him. How can that be true? The word "world" (kosmos) is the same in both passages whether English or Greek. The difficulty is resolved by understanding that the word "world" in John 3:16 is a reference to man whereas in 1 John 2:15 the word "world" is a reference to the sinful pleasures which draw us away from God.
The Word “Works”
Examining the Scriptures will show that there are other words in the New Testament which may be found in one passage to mean one thing while in another place the meaning is entirely different, sometimes opposite in meaning from its use in other passages.
So it is with the word "works" as found in Ephesians 2:8-9 and James 2:24. It means one thing in Ephesians 2:8-9 yet something entirely different in James 2:24. To allow only one meaning to the word "works" will result in a series of errors.
First, allowing only one meaning to the word "works" puts Ephesians 2:8-9 at odds not only with James 2:24 but also with John 6:28-29 where just one meaning to the word "works" in Ephesians would eliminates even faith as essential to salvation. The Jews asked Jesus "What must we do to work the works of God?" to which He responded, "This is the WORK of God that ye believe on him whom he hath sent" (vs. 28-29). Jesus said, "Belief (faith) is a work." If works do not save, then it is not essential that one believe to be saved.
Second, allowing only one meaning to the word "works" denies countless scriptures which show obedience to be absolutely essential to salvation. Consider just a few.
“8 Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; 9 and being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him” (Hebrews 5:8-9).
"Not everyone that saith unto me Lord, Lord shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he that doeth the will of my father which is in heaven" (Matthew 7:21).
"Rendering vengeance to them that know not God and to them that obey not the gospel…" (2 Thessalonians 1:8).
Dozens of other passages could be given, all which show that man must obey God to be saved and that while obedience includes faith; it also includes other commandments Jesus gave, certainly including water baptism for Jesus expressly said it saves (read Mark 16:16).
If the Bible is truly inerrant, there can be no contradiction between Ephesians 2:8-9 and James 2:24, and for there to be no contradiction IT MUST BE TRUE that the "works" of which Paul wrote and the "works" of which James wrote are different.
And, if it is true that Paul used the word "works" in an entirely different sense than did James, then the next question to be asked is, "What works was Paul writing of that will not save and what works was James writing about that are as essential for a man to be justified (saved).
Works, According To Paul And James (1)
Paul used the word "works" in an entirely different and opposite meaning than James. There is no other way to harmonize the two passages. That is magnified when both Paul and James spoke of Abraham. Paul said, "If Abraham were justified by works he hath whereof to glory but not toward God" (Romans 4:2), but James wrote "Was not Abraham our father justified by works in that he offered up Isaac, his son…." (James 2:21). Paul said Abraham was not justified by works. James said he was. YET, both of them were right!
What kind of works was Abraham NOT justified by? Paul said, "If, Abraham was justified by works, he hath whereof to glory." The "works" Abraham was NOT justified by was the same works Paul wrote of in Ephesians 2:8-9; works of which a man could glory (boast). The word "glory" in Romans 4:2 is a noun; the word boast (glory) in Ephesians 2:9 is a verb but the works are "akin" to each other.
It is signification to note that both Romans and Ephesians contrast justification through the law Moses gave and the law of faith given by Jesus (Romans 3:27-28). In both Romans and Ephesians Paul showed that before Christ offered Himself for men that neither Gentile nor Jew could find eternal justification through the system each of them were a part.
Look first at Ephesians 2:1, "And ye did he make alive when ye were dead through your trespasses and sins…." Now look at verse three, "Among whom we also once lived in the lust of our flesh, doing the desires of the flesh and of the mind." Two different groups of people are addressed, the "ye" and the "we."
But while these were different groups of people they were alike in one regard, both "were dead in their sins" (Ephesians 2:5). Who were the "ye" of verse one? Verse 11 tells us: "Wherefore, remember that once ye, the Gentiles in the flesh." The "ye" is Gentiles, the "we" a reference to Jews.
What is true both in Ephesians two and Romans chapters 1-3 is that before Christ offered His blood to save sinful man, both Gentiles in idolatry and Jews under the Law of Moses were dead in sin and needed forgiveness. Neither Jew nor Gentile could be saved apart from the blood of Christ.
The theme of Romans is obedient faith to the saving Gospel of Christ. Romans 1:16-17 says, “16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. 17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.”
The balance of Romans chapter one and the next two chapters is spent to show two important truths: 1. there is a need for the gospel and 2. until Jesus became the Lamb of God, there was no permanent remedy to remove sin.
The universal need for something to remove sins is stated clearly in Romans 3:23, "For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." Both Jews and Greeks have sinned. Both have fallen short of the glory of God. Romans 3:23 is the conclusion of the apostle's efforts to show there was (is) a need for the gospel: Greeks need it; Jews need it.
And although the Jew had the law, that does not negate the truth that the real need for healing from the scourge of sin was NOT supplied by the law, "Therefore by the deeds (works) OF THE LAW there shall no flesh be justified in his sight …." (Romans 3:20). Underline the phrase "works of the law," then mark the phrase in bold letters: this will help to open understanding how Paul used the word "works" in contrasts with James' use of the word.
The Word “Righteousness”
Keep Romans 3:20 in mind, then read the next two verse. “21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; 22 even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference” (vs. 21-22)
The word "righteousness" occurring here in Romans 3:21 is found in the Scriptures in a variety of ways. Sometimes it describes the righteous character of God (Romans 3:5); sometimes it describes good deeds a man may do (Titus 3:4); sometimes it describes a state of justification of man given him by God (Romans 1:16-17).
It is in this latter sense used in Romans 3:21, "a righteousness of God hath been manifested." This righteousness, state of justification of man, is "apart from the law"; that is, it is not connected with the law, or doesn't issue from the law.
It was this "righteousness" Paul longed for and expected to receive: "Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness… at that day…" - that is, the day when Jesus comes again (2 Timothy 4:8).
This was what he sought and wrote of when he told the Philippians he wanted, “to be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith” (Philippians 3:9).
Here Paul tells us he did not want a righteousness which was his own, something he had worked for - which righteousness came through the law. He wanted the righteousness which was a gift of God because of the blood of Christ, which righteousness comes through faith. That is exactly what he meant in Romans 3:20. The righteousness through the gospel is by grace; the other, through the law, is acquired by works. To be continued in Part 2…
Shared with you by Samuel A. Matthews, preaching with the Liberty NW church of Christ, meeting in Portland, Oregon, USA. The God of Heaven and Earth is so good, and His love reaches all. We love you with the love of the Lord (John 13:34-35) – 18 August 2026
"WE ARE NOT SAVED BY WORKS - BAPTISM IS A WORK - THEREFORE WE ARE NOT SAVED BY BAPTISM" (PART 2 OF 2)
“20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. 21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets” (Romans 3:20-21, KJV).
Works, According To Paul And James (2)
In Part 1 we showed that in Romans chapters 1-3 the gospel reveals a way for salvation from sin for all men, Jew and Greek (Romans 1:16). In the gospel is revealed a "righteousness of God," a way by which men can be regarded as just In God's sight. Jew and Gentile both were sinners, and despite the fact that Jews had the law, the righteousness of God by which men are justified is not from or by the law (Romans 3:21) for "by the deeds (works) of the law shall no flesh be justified" (Romans 3:20).
When Paul spoke of the "works of the law," he referred to the Law of Moses and not, as some believe and teach, to law in general. We are under law, the "law of Christ" (Galatians 6:2). There was a deficiency in the Law of Moses; no person could be justified by the works of it because there was something it did not have: it did not have a sacrifice that would permanently remove sin.
Righteousness through the gospel, apart from the law, comes through faith and was witnessed (prophesied) by both the law and the prophets. This righteousness was contained in the promise God made Abraham: "In thee and thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed" (Genesis 22:18).
Peter identified this blessing as forgiveness of sins: “25 Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed. 26 Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities” (Acts 3:25-26).
Paul wrote In Romans 3:24-27: “24 being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: 25 whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 26 to declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. 27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.” What a wonderful, thrilling passage!
God set forth His Son to be a propitiation (sin offering) for us. The sacrifice of Jesus showed God to be righteous. The phrase “for the remission of sins that are past,” is inserted to show why God's sacrifice of His Son showed Him to be righteous, because in times past, in the case of some men, God had not meted to them the wages of sin (Romans 6:23). And Satan, ever the accuser of man, would have said to God: "Ye are not just. You have allowed some men to be 'saved' yet their sin still remains."
The offering of Jesus was, is, a sufficient sacrifice to cover all the sins of man and God was righteous to "pass over" the sins of some because He knew that His Son's sacrifice was sufficient to cover those forgiven sins and though NOT given as yet, it was certain to be. On the basis of that certainty, God passed over sin in light of the sacrifice that was certain to be made.
The Hebrew writer said: “15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament…” (Hebrews 9:15).
The sacrifice of Christ made possible that the Father could be just. An atonement had been made sufficient to remove the guilt of the sin and not only made just, made justifier of them that hath faith. The Father was able, because of the sacrifice of Christ, to show mercy and forgiveness to those laden with sin.
Romans 3:27 poses an all-important question: "Where then is the glorying (boasting)?" He then immediately wrote, "It is excluded." There is no room for glorying in our salvation OF OUR OWN SELVES. How, or in what way is "glorying" excluded? That is the apostle's next question: "By what manner of law, of works? Nay but by a law of faith."
We cannot boast of ourselves when God has justified us, but a "law of works" (which the old law was) would not exclude boasting, glorying; rather it would allow boasting (Philippians 3:9). And it was that law Paul has in mind. When he had asked the question "Where is the glorying," then answered, "It is excluded." He followed with another question, "By what manner of law, of works?" "Nay," said he, "but by a law of faith."
Now notice what follows, "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law” (v. 28). See? And when he said "law" it was the Law of Moses he had in mind, for he hastened to ask, “29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also” (Romans 3:28-29). A law of faith would not allow personal boasting, it would exclude such.
Paul wrote further, “Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt” (Romans 4:4). So, another fact in the kind of works we cannot be justified by are works which when done the person could expect a reward (wages) for what he did. God's reward (forgiveness) is not bestowed on man because man earned it – that God owed it to him. Nothing is further from the truth.
It is at this point (between Romans 3 and 4) that Abraham appears in the text. This is significant for in the first three chapters Paul had written of Jews and Gentiles and declared that the Greek was not alone in his need for the gospel, the Jews did as well for both had sinned and fallen short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23). Both, if saved, would be by God grace. Neither could be saved by works which would allow either glorying or receiving salvation because God owed such to him.
To drive home that point Paul introduces Abraham, whom every Jew would acknowledge to be the epitome of one who pleased God and whom God had saved. Like all other men, Abraham had sinned and needed salvation (Genesis 12:13; Romans 3:23). Was he saved through the works of the law? When Romans was written no greater issue troubled brethren more than the question of what obligation did Gentiles who believed Christ and obeyed the gospel have to the law? To circumcision?
Many churches and brethren were disturbed by Jews who insisted that such men must be circumcised and keep the law (Acts 15:1-6). In face of that issue and questions, Paul asked: “What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? 2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. 3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness” (Romans 4:1-3).
Abraham was introduced into the text to show that he was pronounced righteous before he received the commandment of circumcision (Genesis 15:6; 17:9-11) and 430 years before the law was given (Galatians 3:17). So, it was possible for one to be justified and keep neither circumcision nor the law, for Abraham was.
Abraham was not justified by works he could boast of. Yet, he was justified by works (James 2:21). The kind of works Abraham was justified by was the obedience which was his response to a command from God. God commanded Abraham to leave home and family; to go to a land God would show him (Genesis 12:1-4) and he did.
Of this obedience it was said, “By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out…” (Hebrews 11:8). God commanded Abraham to offer up Isaac (Genesis 22:1-3) and it was in obedience to this command that once more the Hebrew letter said, By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac…” (Hebrews 11:17).
It was of this act of obedience that James said, “21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? 22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? 23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness…” (James 2:21-23).
Paul wrote: “For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love” (Galatians 5:6). God commanded Abraham to leave home and country. He obeyed and his obedience, coupled with his faith, was the means through which is was imputed to him for righteousness.
God commands us, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved…” (Mark 16:16); "Repent ye and be baptized every one of you…for the remission of sins…" (Acts 2:38); "Arise and be baptized and wash away thy sins" (Acts 22:16). And it is that obedience in response to a command from God that makes faith perfect, by which we are saved. How dare anyone thumb his nose at the word of God and say, "Baptism does not save"?
SALVATION BY FAITH
It has been shown that Paul taught that man is not saved by works, yet the word "works" has to be understood in a limited sense for if an unlimited sense were true, even faith would not save for faith is a work (John 6:29). The works by which man are not justified are works which would allow him to boast, and those, which done, would earn him salvation (Romans 4:2, 5; Ephesians 2:8-9). One thing is certain: man is NOT justified by faith alone (James 2:24, 26).
Faith alone would exclude anything save faith. It would exclude any other act of obedience; repentance, confession of faith in Christ; Christ's blood and God's grace. For if man is justified by faith alone and either of those things mentioned above, then he is NOT justified by faith alone.
Changing the narrative to "Man is saved at the point of faith without further acts of obedience" does not help the dilemma. A confession that "I believe Jesus is the Son of God" before one actually believes is no confession of faith. One cannot repent of sins against God, when he doesn't yet believe in God nor that he has sinned against Him. Neither "Salvation at the point of faith before further acts of obedience" or "salvation by faith alone" is true. Both are doctrines devised by man.
We acknowledge there are at least two passages where repentance is mentioned before faith, Mark 1:15 and Acts 20:21. In both passages a quick look will show that the repentance was made toward God (with whom one was already familiar), and faith in the gospel or Christ of which formerly they knew nothing. A man cannot repent of sins against God unless he first believes he has sinned against God; he cannot confess he believes Jesus is the Son of God if he does not yet so believe. So, we are saved by faith, but faith in this instance is used in a generic sense: it includes not only the element of belief itself, but whatever else God has commanded man to do.
In Acts 16:19-34 there is an account of Paul and Silas being imprisoned for preaching the gospel. Together these men were singing, praying and praising God and while the jailor was asleep, the other prisoners were listening to them. At midnight an earthquake occurred shaking the prison, openings its doors and loosing the bands with which the prisoners were bound. The jailor awoke, saw that the prisoners were loosed from their bands and that the doors to the prison were open and drew his sword intending to kill himself. Paul called out with a loud voice saying "Do thyself no harm. We are all here." The jailor called for a light, sprang in, and trembling for fear, fell down before Paul and Saul and said "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?" (Acts 16:30). Paul told him, "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house" (Acts 16:31).
Notice carefully the remainder of the narrative. "And they spake unto him the word of the Lord, and to all that were in his house." Why did the preachers do this? They spake the word unto him so that he could do what they had told him he must do: "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ…." He could not believe in him whom he had not heard (Romans 10:14) and it is through preaching the word that faith comes (Romans 10:17).
Next, in response to the preachers' preaching, it is said that, “he took them the same hour of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and all his, straightway” (Acts 16:33). What does this verse tell us? It tells us the jailor repented, he washed their stripes. Then he was baptized. How did he know to be baptized? The word of the Lord had been spoken unto him which commanded baptism (Acts 2:38). Why was he baptized? For the reason Jesus commanded – to be saved (Mark 16:16).
Now look at the conclusion of the matter: “And when he had brought them into his house, he set meat before them, and rejoiced, believing in God with all his house” (Acts 16:34). Why did the jailor rejoice? Because he had been saved. He had believed in God yet that belief in God included not only that he believed in the Lordship of Jesus, but his repentance and his baptism. All these things occurred, yet the record only said "having believed in God."
Look at one more illustration. In Matthew 21:23-27 there is the record of Jewish priests and elders of the people approaching Jesus with the question: "By what authority doest thou these things and who gave thee that authority?" Jesus responded "I will answer you if you will answer a question for me. The baptism of John, whence was it; from heaven or from men?" The Jewish priests and elders were not certain how to answer. "If we shall say from heaven," reasoned they, "he will respond why then did ye not believe him?" Should we say "From men, we fear the people for all hold John to be a prophet." So they chose to answer that they did not know.
Notice how these men tied Jesus' question about the origin of John's baptism with faith. "If we say from heaven, he will say why did ye not believe him?" John baptized for remission of sins (Mark 1:4). Luke wrote "But the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected for themselves the counsel of God, not being baptized of him – John" (Luke 7:30).
If these Jews rejecting being baptized constituted a rejection of "the counsel of God," would not rejecting baptism for the purpose Jesus said equally be rejecting the "counsel of God"? It is not possible to believe in Jesus and not believe in His Word. It is not possible to believe in baptism and not believe in the purpose for it.
Water baptism is a test of faith. There is no logical reason why we must be baptized to be saved only that Jesus said we must (Mark 16:16). Rejecting baptism for remission of sins is for most, unbelief: they know what Jesus said, but they don't believe it. It is not hard to understand what the word says. What is hard is to believe Jesus in the face of all common reason. But that is faith and we must "walk by faith and not by sigh" (2 Corinthians 5:7).
The churches of Christ are neither Catholic, Protestant, nor Jew (Romans 16:16; Matthew 16:18-19). We are the loving suffering body of Christ (Ephesians 1:20-23; 4:4-6) – CHRISTIANS: “Yet if any man suffer as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God on this behalf” (1 Peter 4:16; cf. Acts 11:26; 26:28).
Through the free gift of God’s grace by Jesus’ blood (Ephesians 2:8; Revelation 1:5) and your obedient faith (Romans 1:5; 10:17; 16:26), salvation is offered. If you have questions or wish to comment, please do so. Lord willing, a Bible answer will be provided for every Bible question.
Shared with you by Samuel A. Matthews, preaching with the Liberty NW church of Christ, meeting in Portland, Oregon, USA. The God of Heaven and Earth is so good, and His love reaches all. He is in control, so trust Him. We love you with the love of the Lord (John 13:34-35).